Electromagnetic Waves
By the 1860s physicists had four hard-won laws — Gauss's law for electric fields, Gauss's law for
magnetism, Faraday's law of induction, and Ampère's law as completed by Maxwell's
displacement current.
Each described how charges and currents make fields. Nobody expected these four equations to
predict light. Then James Clerk Maxwell did something almost casual: he asked what the
equations allow in empty space, where there are no charges and no currents at all.
The answer that fell out is the single idea of this page: in vacuum, Maxwell's equations
combine into a wave equation. The electric field obeys
\nabla^2\mathbf{E} = \mu_0\varepsilon_0\,\partial^2\mathbf{E}/\partial t^2,
the magnetic field obeys the very same equation, and the wave speed that pops out is
c = 1/\sqrt{\mu_0\varepsilon_0}. Plug in the numbers measured in a lab full
of batteries and magnets and you get 3\times 10^8\ \text{m/s} — the speed
of light. Maxwell's own words land like a thunderclap: light "is an electromagnetic disturbance." The
thing your eyes detect, the thing radios and X-ray machines emit, is a ripple in the electromagnetic
field.
The four equations, in vacuum
Everything we need starts from Maxwell's equations with no sources — no charge density
(\rho = 0) and no current (\mathbf{J} = 0):
- Gauss (electric): \nabla\cdot\mathbf{E} = 0
- Gauss (magnetic): \nabla\cdot\mathbf{B} = 0
- Faraday: \nabla\times\mathbf{E} = -\dfrac{\partial\mathbf{B}}{\partial t}
- Ampère–Maxwell: \nabla\times\mathbf{B} = \mu_0\varepsilon_0\,\dfrac{\partial\mathbf{E}}{\partial t}
Notice the beautiful symmetry: a changing \mathbf{B} curls up an
\mathbf{E} (Faraday), and a changing \mathbf{E}
curls up a \mathbf{B} (Ampère–Maxwell). Each field, by changing, keeps the
other alive. That mutual feeding is the engine of the wave — and it is Maxwell's displacement-current
term on the right of the last equation that makes it possible. Without that term, no light.
The derivation: take the curl of Faraday's law
We want an equation for \mathbf{E} alone. The trick is to take the
curl of both sides of Faraday's law, so we can feed the other equations in. Start
from
\nabla\times(\nabla\times\mathbf{E}) = \nabla\times\left(-\frac{\partial\mathbf{B}}{\partial t}\right) = -\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\left(\nabla\times\mathbf{B}\right).
(Space and time derivatives commute, so the curl slid inside the time derivative.) Now hit each side
with a known identity or equation.
Left side — the "curl of a curl" identity. For any vector field, vector calculus
gives
\nabla\times(\nabla\times\mathbf{E}) = \nabla(\nabla\cdot\mathbf{E}) - \nabla^2\mathbf{E}.
But in vacuum \nabla\cdot\mathbf{E} = 0, so the first term
vanishes, leaving just -\nabla^2\mathbf{E}.
Right side — substitute Ampère–Maxwell. Replace
\nabla\times\mathbf{B} with
\mu_0\varepsilon_0\,\partial\mathbf{E}/\partial t:
-\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\left(\mu_0\varepsilon_0\frac{\partial\mathbf{E}}{\partial t}\right) = -\mu_0\varepsilon_0\frac{\partial^2\mathbf{E}}{\partial t^2}.
Set the two rewritten sides equal, and the minus signs cancel:
-\nabla^2\mathbf{E} = -\mu_0\varepsilon_0\frac{\partial^2\mathbf{E}}{\partial t^2} \quad\Longrightarrow\quad \boxed{\;\nabla^2\mathbf{E} = \mu_0\varepsilon_0\frac{\partial^2\mathbf{E}}{\partial t^2}\;}
That is a wave
equation. Doing the identical dance starting from Ampère–Maxwell (take its curl, use
\nabla\cdot\mathbf{B} = 0, substitute Faraday) gives the twin result for the
magnetic field:
\nabla^2\mathbf{B} = \mu_0\varepsilon_0\frac{\partial^2\mathbf{B}}{\partial t^2}.
Both fields obey the same wave equation with the same speed. Neither field is "the cause" — they
travel together as one object.
Reading off the speed — the punchline
The generic wave equation is \nabla^2 f = \dfrac{1}{v^2}\dfrac{\partial^2 f}{\partial t^2},
where v is the speed of the wave. Matching that template to what we derived,
the coefficient \mu_0\varepsilon_0 must be 1/v^2:
\frac{1}{v^2} = \mu_0\varepsilon_0 \quad\Longrightarrow\quad v = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0\varepsilon_0}} \equiv c.
Now put in the two constants, both measured with ordinary lab equipment long before anyone connected
them to light:
- \mu_0 = 4\pi\times 10^{-7}\ \text{T·m/A} \approx 1.2566\times 10^{-6} (the magnetic constant),
- \varepsilon_0 = 8.85\times 10^{-12}\ \text{F/m} (the electric constant).
Multiply and take the reciprocal square root:
\mu_0\varepsilon_0 = (1.2566\times 10^{-6})(8.85\times 10^{-12}) \approx 1.112\times 10^{-17}\ \text{s}^2/\text{m}^2,
c = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1.112\times 10^{-17}}} \approx 2.998\times 10^{8}\ \text{m/s}.
That is the measured speed of light, to the digits you keep. Two constants from electricity and
magnetism, combined, are the speed of light. This is the moment physics discovered that
optics is a branch of electromagnetism.
The plane wave: what the solution looks like
The simplest solution of the wave equation is a plane wave travelling in, say, the
+z direction. Take the electric field pointing along
x:
\mathbf{E}(z,t) = E_0\cos(kz - \omega t)\,\hat{\mathbf{x}},
where k = 2\pi/\lambda is the wavenumber and
\omega = 2\pi f the angular frequency. Feed this into the wave equation and
you find the two must satisfy \omega/k = c — the wave marches forward at
exactly c. Faraday's law then forces the magnetic field to point along
y:
\mathbf{B}(z,t) = \frac{E_0}{c}\cos(kz - \omega t)\,\hat{\mathbf{y}}.
Read off four facts that define electromagnetic radiation:
- Transverse. Both \mathbf{E} and
\mathbf{B} are perpendicular to the direction of travel
\hat{\mathbf{z}} — nothing oscillates along the motion.
- Mutually perpendicular. \mathbf{E}\perp\mathbf{B}, and
\mathbf{E}\times\mathbf{B} points the way the wave goes.
- In phase. Same \cos(kz-\omega t) for both — they peak
together and cross zero together.
- Locked magnitudes. |\mathbf{E}| = c\,|\mathbf{B}| at
every point, always.
The graph shows the two fields along the propagation axis. They rise and fall in step; drag
the phase slider to send the wave travelling. (The magnetic curve is drawn as
cB so it shares the electric field's height — physically
|\mathbf{B}| is smaller by the enormous factor c.)
Worked examples
Example 1 — from frequency to wavelength. A radio station broadcasts at
f = 100\ \text{MHz} = 1.0\times 10^8\ \text{Hz}. All electromagnetic waves in
vacuum obey c = f\lambda, so
\lambda = \frac{c}{f} = \frac{3.0\times 10^8}{1.0\times 10^8} = 3.0\ \text{m}.
FM radio waves are a few metres long — which is why the antenna is that sort of size.
Example 2 — the magnetic field of sunlight. Bright sunlight has an electric-field
amplitude of about E_0 = 1000\ \text{V/m}. Because
|\mathbf{E}| = c|\mathbf{B}|,
B_0 = \frac{E_0}{c} = \frac{1000}{3.0\times 10^8} \approx 3.3\times 10^{-6}\ \text{T}.
Just a few microtesla — weaker than a fridge magnet. This is why we barely notice the magnetic side
of light: divided by c, it is tiny in ordinary units.
Example 3 — wavenumber to frequency. A green laser has wavelength
\lambda = 500\ \text{nm} = 5.0\times 10^{-7}\ \text{m}. Its wavenumber and
angular frequency are
k = \frac{2\pi}{\lambda} = \frac{2\pi}{5.0\times 10^{-7}} \approx 1.26\times 10^{7}\ \text{rad/m},
\omega = ck = (3.0\times 10^8)(1.26\times 10^7) \approx 3.8\times 10^{15}\ \text{rad/s}.
Equivalently f = c/\lambda = 6.0\times 10^{14}\ \text{Hz} — visible light
oscillates hundreds of trillions of times a second.
One equation, the whole spectrum
Nothing in the derivation fixed the frequency. Any \omega and
k obeying \omega = ck is a valid solution — so
electromagnetic waves come in every frequency, all travelling at the same
c. That continuum is the electromagnetic spectrum: from
long-wavelength radio and microwaves, through infrared, the thin band of visible light
(400–700\ \text{nm}), to ultraviolet, X-rays,
and gamma rays. Radio and gamma rays are the same physics — the same
\mathbf{E} and \mathbf{B} feeding each other —
differing only in how fast they wiggle.
A very natural guess — and wrong for a travelling wave. In a mass on a spring, kinetic and potential
energy trade off, so one peaks when the other is zero (90° out of phase). People expect
\mathbf{E} and \mathbf{B} to do the same. They do
not: in a plane wave in vacuum they carry the identical
\cos(kz-\omega t), so they peak together and are zero
together — perfectly in phase.
Why? Faraday's law relates the space derivative of E to the
time derivative of B. For a cosine both derivatives are the same
sine, so no phase offset appears. (The 90°-out-of-phase picture does apply to a
standing wave, e.g. inside a cavity — but that is a sum of two travelling waves, a different
situation.) For light streaming freely through space: same phase, always.
Nineteenth-century physicists were so uneasy about this that they invented a substance — the
"luminiferous ether" — for light to wave in, by analogy with sound needing air. But look back
at the derivation: we set \rho = 0 and \mathbf{J} = 0
and the wave survived anyway. The fields themselves are the medium. A wiggle in
\mathbf{E} creates a wiggle in \mathbf{B} (via
Ampère–Maxwell), which recreates \mathbf{E} (via Faraday), which recreates
\mathbf{B}… on and on through utterly empty space, no ether required.
The Michelson–Morley experiment (1887) hunted for the ether and found nothing, and Einstein's
relativity later explained why there is none to find. Light needs no material to travel through — that
is exactly how starlight crosses the vacuum of space to reach your eye.