Comparison Tests

Take a medicine at the same time each day and each dose leaves a little behind; does the amount in your body build to a safe steady level or climb without limit? Questions like this are really asking whether an infinite sum settles or runs away — and the quickest way to decide is to hold your messy series up against a simpler one whose fate you already know.

Judge a series by the company it keeps. If a series with positive terms sits underneath a series you already know converges, it has nowhere to escape to — it converges too. If it sits above a series you know diverges, it gets dragged off to infinity with it. That single idea — squeeze your unknown series between a known one and infinity — powers the two most-used convergence tests in the whole subject.

0 \le a_n \le b_n: \qquad \sum b_n \text{ converges} \Rightarrow \sum a_n \text{ converges}, \qquad \sum a_n \text{ diverges} \Rightarrow \sum b_n \text{ diverges}.

Notice what this means in practice: the whole game is picking the right benchmark. The test itself is almost trivial; the skill is choosing what to compare against. Two families act as the rulers of the trade, because their fate is known completely:

\text{geometric: } \sum r^n \text{ converges} \iff |r| < 1, \qquad \text{p-series: } \sum \frac{1}{n^p} \text{ converges} \iff p > 1.

The geometric series rules everything with exponential behaviour; the p-series (settled by the integral test) rules everything with power-of-n behaviour. Nearly every comparison you will ever run measures a messy series against one of these two rulers.

The Direct Comparison Test, worked line by line

Suppose 0 \le a_n \le b_n for all n, and that the larger series \sum b_n converges. We show \sum a_n converges — and the proof is short enough to carry in your pocket.

Step 1 — partial sums are increasing. Every term a_n \ge 0, so adding more terms only grows the partial sum s_n = \sum_{k=1}^{n} a_k:

s_1 \le s_2 \le s_3 \le \cdots

Step 2 — bound them above, term by term. Since a_k \le b_k for each k, the sum of the small terms is at most the sum of the big ones, which is at most the whole convergent total B = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} b_k:

s_n = \sum_{k=1}^{n} a_k \;\le\; \sum_{k=1}^{n} b_k \;\le\; \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} b_k = B.

Step 3 — invoke monotone convergence. The sequence (s_n) is increasing (Step 1) and bounded above by B (Step 2). An increasing sequence with a ceiling must converge to a limit no larger than that ceiling:

\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n = \lim_{n\to\infty} s_n \le B < \infty.

The divergence half is the contrapositive: if \sum a_n = \infty, the bigger \sum b_n cannot be finite either.

Suppose 0 \le a_n \le b_n for all n (or all n \ge N). Then:

Worked example: below a convergent ruler

Test \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2 + 3}. Step 1 — x-ray the term. For large n the +3 is a rounding error next to n^2, so the term behaves like 1/n^2. That nominates the ruler. Step 2 — check the inequality points the useful way. Adding 3 to the denominator makes the fraction smaller:

0 \le \frac{1}{n^2 + 3} \le \frac{1}{n^2} \qquad \text{for every } n \ge 1.

Step 3 — conclude. The ruler \sum 1/n^2 converges (p-series, p = 2 > 1), and our series sits underneath it, so by direct comparison it converges. As a bonus the proof hands us a bound: \sum 1/(n^2+3) \le \sum 1/n^2 = \pi^2/6 \approx 1.645. Three lines, done — when the inequality cooperates.

When the inequality points the wrong way

Now try \displaystyle\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2 - 1}. Same x-ray, same instinct: it behaves like 1/n^2, so it surely converges. But watch the inequality. Subtracting 1 from the denominator makes the fraction bigger:

\frac{1}{n^2 - 1} \;\ge\; \frac{1}{n^2}.

Our series is bigger than a convergent series — and that is one of the two useless directions. A thing larger than something finite can still be finite or infinite; the comparison proves nothing at all. The test hasn't failed; we've simply pointed it the wrong way, like trying to prove someone is short by showing they're taller than a short person.

You can rescue direct comparison by hand-crafting a cleverer inequality — for n \ge 2 we have n^2 - 1 \ge n^2/2, hence 1/(n^2-1) \le 2/n^2, and twice a convergent series still converges. But notice what that took: a small flash of ingenuity, a constant conjured from nowhere, an inequality to verify. Multiply that fuss across every messy series you'll ever meet and you want a tool that skips it. That tool is the limit comparison test: it only asks whether the terms are eventually proportional to the ruler's, and never asks which one is on top.

The Limit Comparison Test, worked line by line

Let a_n, b_n > 0 and suppose the ratio of terms settles down to a finite, positive limit:

\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{a_n}{b_n} = c, \qquad 0 < c < \infty.

Step 1 — turn the limit into a two-sided bound. The ratio settling on a positive c means that, past some index N, the ratio is trapped in a band around c — say between \tfrac{c}{2} and 2c:

\frac{c}{2} \;<\; \frac{a_n}{b_n} \;<\; 2c \qquad \text{for all } n \ge N.

Step 2 — multiply through by b_n > 0. This sandwiches the terms a_n between two constant multiples of b_n:

\frac{c}{2}\, b_n \;<\; a_n \;<\; 2c\, b_n \qquad \text{for all } n \ge N.

Step 3 — apply direct comparison both ways. A nonzero constant multiple does not change whether a series converges, so:

\sum b_n \text{ converges} \;\overset{a_n < 2c\,b_n}{\Longrightarrow}\; \sum a_n \text{ converges}, \qquad \sum b_n \text{ diverges} \;\overset{a_n > \frac{c}{2}\,b_n}{\Longrightarrow}\; \sum a_n \text{ diverges}.

Step 4 — conclude the shared fate. Both implications run, so the two series stand or fall together:

\sum a_n \text{ converges} \;\iff\; \sum b_n \text{ converges}.

Let a_n, b_n > 0 and \displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{a_n}{b_n} = c. Then:

Worked example: a messy fraction of polynomials

Test \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2n + 1}{n^3 + n}. Step 1 — x-ray. Keep only the dominant terms: top \approx 2n, bottom \approx n^3, so the term behaves like 2n/n^3 = 2/n^2. Ruler: b_n = 1/n^2. Step 2 — compute the ratio.

\frac{a_n}{b_n} = \frac{(2n+1)/(n^3+n)}{1/n^2} = \frac{(2n+1)\,n^2}{n^3+n} = \frac{2n^3 + n^2}{n^3 + n} = \frac{2 + \tfrac{1}{n}}{1 + \tfrac{1}{n^2}} \;\xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{}\; \frac{2 + 0}{1 + 0} = 2.

Step 3 — conclude. The limit c = 2 is finite and strictly positive, and the ruler \sum 1/n^2 converges, so the original series converges. No inequality was checked anywhere — the limit did all the work. (And c = 2 is no accident: it is exactly the leading coefficient the x-ray predicted.)

Worked example: the rescue

Back to the series that embarrassed direct comparison, \displaystyle\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2 - 1} with ruler b_n = 1/n^2:

\frac{a_n}{b_n} = \frac{1/(n^2-1)}{1/n^2} = \frac{n^2}{n^2 - 1} = \frac{1}{1 - \tfrac{1}{n^2}} \;\xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{}\; 1.

c = 1 \in (0, \infty) and \sum 1/n^2 converges, so \sum 1/(n^2-1) converges. The key lesson of this page in one sentence: when your series is a hair's breadth above its natural ruler, direct comparison points the wrong way — and limit comparison doesn't care.

How to pick the ruler

Every comparison argument starts the same way: stare at a_n and ask "what does this really look like as n \to \infty?" The reliable recipe:

Because the leftovers vanish in the ratio. Take a_n = \dfrac{3n + 5}{n^3 - 2n + 4}: the x-ray says 3n/n^3 = 3/n^2, so compare with b_n = 1/n^2:

\frac{a_n}{b_n} = \frac{(3n + 5)\,n^2}{n^3 - 2n + 4} = \frac{3 + \tfrac{5}{n}}{1 - \tfrac{2}{n^2} + \tfrac{4}{n^3}} \;\xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{}\; 3.

Every discarded term reappears divided by a power of n and dies, leaving exactly the ratio of leading coefficients — a finite, positive c, which is precisely what limit comparison demands. The general rule of thumb: a rational term with degree e on top and degree d on the bottom behaves like 1/n^{\,d-e}, so it converges iff d - e > 1. This is why limit comparison is the workhorse for messy fractions of polynomials: the heuristic that picks the ruler also guarantees the test will apply.

Ask a working analyst whether \sum \frac{n^2 + 7n}{n^4 + \sqrt{n} + 9} converges and you'll get an answer before you finish writing it. They aren't computing — they are degree-counting: top grows like n^2, bottom like n^4, difference 4 - 2 = 2 > 1 — converges. It's the same x-ray habit you've just learned, compiled into reflex. Try reading these at a glance:

The eyeball verdict is not a proof — the limit comparison computation is the proof — but in practice the x-ray is right so often that analysts treat degree-counting as a superpower: see the dominant term, know the fate, then write the two-line limit to make it official.

Three traps catch nearly every newcomer to comparison tests:

Watch one series bound another

Here is the direct comparison test made visible. The faint dashed curve is the convergent yardstick b_n = 1/n^2; the bold curve is a_n = 1/(n^2 + k), which sits at or below it for every k \ge 0. Slide k down to 0 and the two curves fuse; crank it up to 20 and the bold curve is pushed further below the ceiling — but it can never poke above it.

The second chart is where the theorem actually lives: the partial sums. The dashed running total climbs towards \pi^2/6 \approx 1.645 and flattens out; the bold running total climbs too (Step 1 of the proof: it only ever increases) but stays pinned beneath the dashed one (Step 2: term-by-term smaller means sum-by-sum smaller). An increasing curve under a finite ceiling has no choice but to level off — that levelling-off is convergence, and it's Step 3 happening before your eyes.

See it explained