Forward Rate Agreements

A corporate treasurer knows she will need to borrow $10 million for six months, starting in three months' time — perhaps to bridge a receivable. Today's 3-month and 9-month rates are both quoted, but neither is the rate for her loan, which starts three months from now and runs for six. The zero curve she already has turns out to pin that rate down exactly, with no guesswork required — and a contract exists to lock it in today. This lesson derives the forward rate the curve implies, and introduces the forward rate agreement (FRA) that trades it.

The forward rate: what the curve already knows

Suppose you can invest risk-free out to T_1 at rate R_1, or out to a later date T_2 at rate R_2. Consider two strategies for turning $1 into cash at T_2:

No arbitrage means both strategies must produce the same terminal wealth — exactly the same logic that pins down a forward price from a spot price and a cost of carry, with money itself now playing the role of the asset being carried forward. Setting the two strategies equal,

e^{R_2 T_2} = e^{R_1 T_1}\,e^{R_F (T_2 - T_1)},

and solving for the only unknown gives the forward rate implied by the curve — no forecasting involved, just algebra on two rates the market already quotes:

Worked example. The curve quotes R_1 = 5.0\% at T_1 = 0.25 (3 months) and R_2 = 5.6\% at T_2 = 0.75 (9 months). The forward rate for the 6-month period starting in 3 months (market shorthand: the "3×9" FRA rate) is

R_F = \frac{0.056 \times 0.75 - 0.05 \times 0.25}{0.75 - 0.25} = \frac{0.042 - 0.0125}{0.5} = \frac{0.0295}{0.5} = 5.90\%.

Notice 5.90\% > 5.6\% > 5.0\% — with an upward-sloping curve, the market is quietly pricing in even higher rates for the future 6-month stretch than either quoted rate alone.

The FRA: trading that forward rate

A forward rate agreement lets two parties lock in exactly that forward rate for a notional principal L, over a future period from T_1 to T_2, without either side actually lending or borrowing the notional — only the difference between the agreed rate and the rate that actually prevails changes hands. The party long the FRA (who is hedging a future borrowing need, like our treasurer) is protected if rates rise above the agreed rate R_K; the party short is protected if rates fall.

At the start of the period, the reference floating rate R_M (historically LIBOR, now a SOFR-based rate) is observed, and the long side receives

L\,(R_M - R_K)\,(T_2 - T_1)

— positive if the actual rate came in above what was locked in, negative otherwise. This is exactly the extra interest the long side would have paid on a real loan at the higher market rate, handed over in cash instead: economically identical to having actually borrowed at R_K. In practice this amount is usually settled early, at T_1 (when R_M becomes known), discounted back one period at the now-known market rate.

Worked example, continued. Our treasurer locks in the FRA at R_K = 5.90\% on notional L = \$10{,}000{,}000. Three months later, the realized 6-month rate turns out to be R_M = 6.20\% — rates rose, so the hedge pays off:

L(R_M - R_K)(T_2-T_1) = 10{,}000{,}000 \times (0.062 - 0.059) \times 0.5 = \$15{,}000,

payable, in principle, at T_2. Settled instead at T_1 (the market norm), the payment is discounted one period at the now-known rate R_M:

\frac{15{,}000}{1 + 0.062 \times 0.5} = \frac{15{,}000}{1.031} \approx \$14{,}549.

Either way, the treasurer's real borrowing cost is topped up (or trimmed) by exactly the gap between what the market charged and the 5.90% she locked in — the loan itself, wherever she actually takes it out, now effectively costs her 5.90%.

If the cost-of-carry derivation of a forward price felt familiar while reading this lesson, it should — it is the same argument, with the asset being carried forward replaced by money itself. There, the "cost of carry" was an interest rate applied to a stock or commodity price; here, the "asset" is the interest rate mechanism, and the "carry" is simply compounding over time. Both arguments boil down to the same sentence: two routes to the same future date must cost the same today, or someone can arbitrage the difference. Recognizing this one pattern reappearing — spot-plus-carry equals forward — will save you from re-deriving it from scratch every time it shows up again later in the course.

It is tempting to read R_F = 5.90\% as "the market expects the 6-month rate to be 5.90% in three months." That is one theory — the pure expectations hypothesis — but it is not a fact baked into the algebra. The forward rate is derived purely from no-arbitrage between two zero rates observable today; it says nothing about anyone's beliefs. Other well-known theories of the term structure (liquidity preference, market segmentation) argue the forward rate is systematically biased relative to the true expected future rate — for instance, lenders may demand extra compensation for locking up money longer, pushing long rates (and hence forward rates) above pure expectations. The forward rate is always a valid hedging price; whether it is also a good forecast is a separate, still-debated empirical question.