The Normal Distribution

The normal (or Gaussian) distribution is the bell-shaped curve at the centre of probability. We write X \sim N(\mu, \sigma^2) to say that X has mean \mu and variance \sigma^2. Its density — the height of the curve at each point — is

f(x) = \frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\,\exp\!\left(-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right).

That \exp of a negative square (see the exponential function) is what makes the curve fall away smoothly on both sides. It is symmetric about \mu: the mean is also the peak and the median. The number \sigma sets the width — small \sigma gives a tall, narrow spike; large \sigma a low, broad mound.

Standardising: the one curve behind them all

Every normal is a shifted, stretched copy of a single master curve. The standard normal Z \sim N(0,1) has mean 0 and variance 1; its cumulative distribution function is written \Phi(z) = \mathbb{P}(Z \le z) — the area under the bell to the left of z. There is no elementary formula for \Phi, which is exactly why it gets its own symbol (and why it shows up inside the Black–Scholes formula).

To turn any X \sim N(\mu, \sigma^2) into a standard normal, subtract the mean and divide by the standard deviation:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma} \sim N(0,1).

This standardisation measures X in units of \sigma away from the mean, so a single table of \Phi answers questions about every normal. But why does the recipe Z = (X-\mu)/\sigma land us back on the standard bell, every single time? That is a claim about densities, and it deserves a real proof.

Standardisation, derived line by line

We will start from the density of X \sim N(\mu, \sigma^2), introduce the standardised variable Z = (X-\mu)/\sigma, and chase through the change of variables until the density of Z emerges. The only tool is the change-of-variables rule for a monotone transformation: if z = (x-\mu)/\sigma is the new variable, then the density f_Z of Z relates to the density f_X of X by

f_Z(z) = f_X(x)\,\left|\frac{dx}{dz}\right|,

where x is rewritten in terms of z. The factor \lvert dx/dz\rvert is the Jacobian: it rescales the density so that probability mass is conserved when we stretch the x-axis into the z-axis. Let us assemble each piece.

Step 1 — write the density of X. This is just the definition we started with:

f_X(x) = \frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\,\exp\!\left(-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right).

Step 2 — invert the substitution. From z = (x-\mu)/\sigma solve for x by multiplying through by \sigma and adding \mu:

x = \mu + \sigma z.

Step 3 — differentiate to get the Jacobian. Since \mu and \sigma are constants, differentiating x = \mu + \sigma z with respect to z gives

\frac{dx}{dz} = \sigma, \qquad \text{so}\qquad \left|\frac{dx}{dz}\right| = \sigma

(the absolute value is harmless here because \sigma > 0). This is the single \sigma that will do all the cancelling.

Step 4 — substitute x = \mu + \sigma z into the exponent. The numerator (x-\mu)^2 becomes

(x-\mu)^2 = (\mu + \sigma z - \mu)^2 = (\sigma z)^2 = \sigma^2 z^2,

so the whole exponent simplifies, the \sigma^2 upstairs cancelling the \sigma^2 downstairs:

-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2} = -\frac{\sigma^2 z^2}{2\sigma^2} = -\frac{z^2}{2}.

Step 5 — assemble. Put the substituted density and the Jacobian into the change-of-variables formula:

f_Z(z) = f_X(\mu + \sigma z)\,\left|\frac{dx}{dz}\right| = \frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\,\exp\!\left(-\frac{z^2}{2}\right)\cdot \sigma.

Step 6 — watch the \sigma cancel. The \sigma from the Jacobian sits in the numerator; the \sigma in 1/(\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}) sits in the denominator. They divide out completely:

f_Z(z) = \frac{\sigma}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\,\exp\!\left(-\frac{z^2}{2}\right) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\,\exp\!\left(-\frac{z^2}{2}\right).

That last expression is the standard normal density \varphi(z) — no \mu, no \sigma left anywhere. The shift by \mu and the scale by \sigma have been completely absorbed, exactly as promised. So Z \sim N(0,1), whatever \mu and \sigma were.

If X \sim N(\mu, \sigma^2) and Z = \dfrac{X-\mu}{\sigma}, then Z \sim N(0,1); its density is the standard normal \varphi(z) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\,e^{-z^2/2}. Consequently every normal probability reduces to one about Z: \mathbb{P}(X \le x) = \Phi\!\left(\dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\right).

For \varphi to be a genuine density it must integrate to 1, which forces the famous Gaussian integral

I = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-x^2/2}\,dx = \sqrt{2\pi}.

There is no elementary antiderivative of e^{-x^2/2}, so we cannot attack I head-on. The trick is to compute I^2 instead, as a double integral, and switch to polar coordinates. First write I^2 as a product of two identical one-dimensional integrals, renaming the dummy in the second copy from x to y:

I^2 = \left(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-x^2/2}\,dx\right)\!\left(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-y^2/2}\,dy\right).

Because each factor is a constant with respect to the other's variable, the product of two integrals is a single integral over the whole plane:

I^2 = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\!\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-x^2/2}\,e^{-y^2/2}\,dx\,dy = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\!\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-(x^2+y^2)/2}\,dx\,dy.

Now change to polar coordinates x = r\cos\theta, y = r\sin\theta. Two things happen: the exponent collapses because x^2 + y^2 = r^2, and the area element picks up the polar Jacobian dx\,dy = r\,dr\,d\theta. The whole plane is swept out by r \in [0, \infty) and \theta \in [0, 2\pi):

I^2 = \int_{0}^{2\pi}\!\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-r^2/2}\,r\,dr\,d\theta.

The extra factor of r is exactly what we needed — it makes the radial integral elementary. Substitute u = r^2/2, so du = r\,dr, turning the inner integral into

\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-r^2/2}\,r\,dr = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-u}\,du = \left[-e^{-u}\right]_{0}^{\infty} = 0 - (-1) = 1.

The outer integral over \theta is then trivial:

I^2 = \int_{0}^{2\pi} 1\,d\theta = 2\pi.

Taking the positive square root (the integrand is positive, so I > 0) gives I = \sqrt{2\pi}. That is precisely the constant sitting under the square root in the density: dividing by \sqrt{2\pi} is what makes the total area equal to 1.

The empirical rule is not folklore — it is three values of \Phi dressed up. Because the standard normal is symmetric about 0, the probability of landing within k standard deviations of the mean is the area between -k and +k:

\mathbb{P}(-k \le Z \le k) = \Phi(k) - \Phi(-k) = \Phi(k) - \bigl(1 - \Phi(k)\bigr) = 2\Phi(k) - 1,

where we used the reflection identity \Phi(-k) = 1 - \Phi(k) (the area to the left of -k equals the area to the right of +k). Now read three values of \Phi off a table:

By standardisation these percentages transfer to any N(\mu,\sigma^2): "within k\sigma of \mu" for X is the same event as "within k of 0" for Z.

Shape the bell

Slide \mu to move the curve left and right, and \sigma to make it wider or narrower. The total area under the curve is always 1, so a narrower bell must grow taller. The faint curve is the fixed standard normal N(0,1) for comparison.

The famous 68–95–99.7 rule reads straight off this picture: about 68\% of the area lies within 1\sigma of \mu, about 95\% within 2\sigma, and about 99.7\% within 3\sigma.

Why finance cares

Over a short period a stock's log-return \ln(S_{t+\Delta}/S_t) is modelled as normal. Returns are roughly symmetric, they add up cleanly over time (a sum of independent normals is again normal), and the normal is the limit the central limit theorem hands us when many small shocks accumulate. That single modelling choice — normal log-returns — is the seed that grows into the lognormal model of the price itself.

See it explained