The Lognormal Distribution
Watch a stock trade at \$100. Over the next year it might double to
\$200, or halve to \$50 — but it can
never go below zero. A limited-liability share is worth, at worst, nothing. That
one-way floor immediately disqualifies the
normal distribution
as a model for the price itself: a normal random variable spills probability across the entire real
line, so a "normal price" would assign real, positive probability to the absurd event
S < 0.
Notice, too, that "double" and "halve" felt like equally natural moves — a jump from
100 to 200 and a drop from
100 to 50 are the same size move
multiplicatively, even though they are +100 and
-50 additively. On the log scale they really are equal
and opposite: \ln 2 \approx 0.69 up versus
\ln\tfrac12 \approx -0.69 down. So the fix is not to abandon the normal —
it is to move it to the log scale. Model the logarithm of the price as normal, and the
price itself becomes finance's favourite distribution:
\ln X \sim N(\mu, \sigma^2), \qquad\text{equivalently}\qquad X = e^{Z}, \quad Z \sim N(\mu, \sigma^2).
A positive random variable X satisfying this is
lognormal with parameters \mu and
\sigma^2. Because e^{Z} is always positive,
X lives on (0, \infty) — it can never be zero
or negative, exactly like a price. This is the shape the Black–Scholes model assumes for a stock at
every future date, so a quant meets it on day one. Note carefully: the parameters
\mu, \sigma describe the normal on the log scale, not the mean
and standard deviation of X itself — a distinction that will keep
earning its keep below.
The density, derived line by line
We know everything about Y = \ln X \sim N(\mu, \sigma^2); we want
the density of X = e^{Y}. The cleanest route is through the
cumulative distribution function (CDF) — accumulate probability for
X, then differentiate to recover the density. Write
F_X(x) = \mathbb{P}(X \le x) for the CDF of
X, and let f_Y and
F_Y be the density and CDF of the normal variable
Y.
Step 1 — turn an event about X
into one about Y. Fix
x > 0. Because \ln is strictly
increasing, the inequality X \le x is equivalent to
\ln X \le \ln x — taking logs of both sides preserves the
direction. So the two events are the same event:
F_X(x) = \mathbb{P}(X \le x) = \mathbb{P}(\ln X \le \ln x) = \mathbb{P}(Y \le \ln x).
Step 2 — recognise the normal CDF. The right-hand side is just
F_Y evaluated at \ln x, and we can
standardise it using the standard normal
CDF \Phi:
F_X(x) = F_Y(\ln x) = \Phi\!\left(\frac{\ln x - \mu}{\sigma}\right).
Step 3 — differentiate to get the density. The density is the derivative of
the CDF, f_X(x) = \frac{d}{dx}F_X(x). The right-hand side is a
composition, so the chain rule applies: differentiate
F_Y at its argument, then multiply by the derivative of the inner
function \ln x. Since
F_Y' = f_Y and
\frac{d}{dx}\ln x = \frac{1}{x}:
f_X(x) = \frac{d}{dx}\,F_Y(\ln x) = f_Y(\ln x)\cdot \frac{d}{dx}\ln x = f_Y(\ln x)\cdot \frac{1}{x}.
That 1/x from the chain rule is the whole story of the lognormal —
it is the Jacobian of the log transform, and it is what bends the symmetric bell into a
skewed curve: it inflates the density near 0 (where
1/x is huge) and squashes it far to the right (where
1/x is tiny), while the long right tail survives because the normal
exponent decays only in \ln x, glacially slowly in
x.
Step 4 — substitute the normal density. Now plug in
f_Y, the N(\mu, \sigma^2) density,
evaluated at \ln x (replace the normal's argument
y by \ln x):
f_Y(\ln x) = \frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\,\exp\!\left(-\frac{(\ln x - \mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right).
Step 5 — multiply by 1/x. Carrying the chain-rule
factor through gives the lognormal density, valid for x > 0 (and
defined to be 0 for x \le 0, since
X is positive):
f_X(x) = \frac{1}{x\,\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\,\exp\!\left(-\frac{(\ln x - \mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right), \qquad x > 0.
If \ln X \sim N(\mu, \sigma^2), then for
x > 0 the density of X is
f_X(x) = \frac{1}{x\,\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\,\exp\!\left(-\frac{(\ln x - \mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right),
and f_X(x) = 0 for x \le 0. The factor
1/x is the Jacobian of the log transform.
Worked example: the simplest lognormal
Take the cleanest possible case: Z \sim N(0,1) and
X = e^{Z}, the standard lognormal
(\mu = 0, \sigma = 1). Where does X sit?
The median is easy. Half the time Z < 0, half the time
Z > 0 (the standard normal is symmetric about zero). Since
e^{z} is increasing, Z < 0 happens exactly
when X = e^{Z} < e^{0} = 1. So
\mathbb{P}(X < 1) = \mathbb{P}(Z < 0) = \tfrac12 \qquad\Rightarrow\qquad \operatorname{median}(X) = e^{0} = 1.
Now the mean — and here is the surprise. Naively you might guess
\mathbb{E}[X] = e^{\mathbb{E}[Z]} = e^{0} = 1, matching the median. But
the true value is
\mathbb{E}\!\left[e^{Z}\right] = e^{1/2} \approx 1.649,
nearly 65% bigger than the median. Why? Because e^{z}
is convex — it curves upward — so equal and opposite moves in
Z do not produce equal and opposite moves in
X. Feel it with a two-point caricature: suppose
Z were just \pm 1 with equal probability.
Then X is either e^{1} \approx 2.718 or
e^{-1} \approx 0.368. The up-move gains
1.718 above 1; the down-move loses only
0.632. Average them:
\tfrac12(2.718 + 0.368) \approx 1.543 > 1. The symmetric coin on the
log scale becomes a lopsided coin on the price scale, and the average tilts up. That is
Jensen's inequality in action —
\mathbb{E}[e^{Z}] > e^{\mathbb{E}[Z]} for any non-degenerate
Z — and the exact size of the tilt for a normal is the famous
e^{\sigma^2/2} factor.
And the mode — the peak of the density — sits below both, at
e^{\mu - \sigma^2} = e^{-1} \approx 0.368. The single most likely
neighbourhood of values is down near 0.37, the typical (median) value is
1, and the long-run average is 1.65. Three
different answers to "where is X?" — that spread of answers is
the skew.
Mean, median, mode — and the right skew
The general lognormal repeats that story with \mu and
\sigma in place of 0 and
1. The curve is right-skewed: it rises from zero,
peaks, then trails off with a long tail to the right. The mean and median are no longer equal —
the long right tail drags the mean above the median:
\mathbb{E}[X] = \exp\!\left(\mu + \tfrac12\sigma^2\right), \qquad \operatorname{median}(X) = e^{\mu}, \qquad \operatorname{mode}(X) = e^{\mu - \sigma^2}.
The extra \tfrac12\sigma^2 in the mean is the fingerprint of the
skew: more spread on the log scale pushes the average further above the typical (median) value.
The three landmarks always line up in the same order from left to right:
\underbrace{e^{\mu - \sigma^2}}_{\text{mode}} \;<\; \underbrace{e^{\mu}}_{\text{median}} \;<\; \underbrace{e^{\mu + \sigma^2/2}}_{\text{mean}}.
Because e^{x} is increasing, that ordering is just
\mu - \sigma^2 < \mu < \mu + \tfrac12\sigma^2 exponentiated — true
for any \sigma > 0. The mean sits furthest right, pulled out by the
tail; the mode (the peak) sits furthest left. That gap is the visual signature of skew.
Concrete numbers. Take \mu = 1,
\sigma = 0.5. Then:
\operatorname{mode} = e^{1 - 0.25} = e^{0.75} \approx 2.117, \qquad \operatorname{median} = e^{1} \approx 2.718, \qquad \mathbb{E}[X] = e^{1 + 0.125} = e^{1.125} \approx 3.080.
Peak at 2.12, halfway point at 2.72, average
at 3.08 — a 13% gap between mean and median from a modest
\sigma = 0.5. Crank \sigma to
1.5 and the mean e^{\mu + 1.125} is over
three times the median e^{\mu}: the
\sigma^2 inside an exponential compounds ferociously.
The mean is an expectation of X = e^{Y}, so by the law of the
unconscious statistician we integrate e^{y} against the normal
density of Y:
\mathbb{E}[X] = \mathbb{E}\!\left[e^{Y}\right] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{y}\,\frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\,\exp\!\left(-\frac{(y-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right)dy.
Pull the two exponentials together into a single exponent — that exponent is where all the
work happens:
\mathbb{E}[X] = \frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \exp\!\left(y - \frac{(y-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right)dy.
Complete the square. Put the exponent over the common denominator
2\sigma^2 and expand
(y-\mu)^2 = y^2 - 2\mu y + \mu^2:
y - \frac{(y-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2} = \frac{2\sigma^2 y - (y^2 - 2\mu y + \mu^2)}{2\sigma^2} = \frac{-y^2 + 2(\mu + \sigma^2)y - \mu^2}{2\sigma^2}.
Now complete the square in the numerator. We want it in the form
-(y - a)^2 + (\text{constant}) with
a = \mu + \sigma^2. Expanding the target,
-(y - (\mu+\sigma^2))^2 = -y^2 + 2(\mu+\sigma^2)y - (\mu+\sigma^2)^2,
matches the first two terms, so the numerator equals
-\bigl(y - (\mu+\sigma^2)\bigr)^2 + (\mu+\sigma^2)^2 - \mu^2.
Expand the leftover constant
(\mu+\sigma^2)^2 - \mu^2 = \mu^2 + 2\mu\sigma^2 + \sigma^4 - \mu^2 = 2\mu\sigma^2 + \sigma^4.
Divide by 2\sigma^2 to pull that constant out of the integral:
\frac{2\mu\sigma^2 + \sigma^4}{2\sigma^2} = \mu + \frac{\sigma^2}{2}.
So the exponent splits into a constant plus a perfect-square Gaussian term:
\mathbb{E}[X] = e^{\mu + \sigma^2/2}\cdot \frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \exp\!\left(-\frac{\bigl(y - (\mu+\sigma^2)\bigr)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right)dy.
The remaining integral is the total area under an
N(\mu + \sigma^2,\, \sigma^2) density — a normal curve shifted to
a new centre but with the same width — and that area is exactly
1. The constant out front is all that survives:
\mathbb{E}[X] = e^{\mu + \sigma^2/2}.
The \tfrac12\sigma^2 appeared precisely as the leftover from
completing the square — convexity of e^{y} turning spread on the
log scale into a lift in the mean.
Three classic traps, all cousins of the same convexity fact:
-
"The average outcome" and "the typical outcome" are different numbers. The
mean e^{\mu + \sigma^2/2} exceeds the median
e^{\mu}, which exceeds the mode
e^{\mu - \sigma^2}. A forward price is an expectation, so
it needs the mean; the "most likely" price the tape will actually print is nearer the mode. Use
e^{\mu} where e^{\mu+\sigma^2/2} belongs
and you have underpriced by a factor of e^{\sigma^2/2} —
real money at any serious volatility.
-
The \sigma^2/2 is not a typo. Newcomers "correct"
\mathbb{E}[e^{Z}] = e^{\mu + \sigma^2/2} to
e^{\mu} so often that the half-variance term deserves its own
warning label. It is a pure convexity effect — and it is exactly the same
\tfrac12\sigma^2 correction term that haunts
Itô's lemma,
where d(\ln S) picks up a
-\tfrac12\sigma^2\,dt. Meet it here in a one-line integral, and the
stochastic-calculus version will feel like an old friend.
-
\ln \mathbb{E}[X] \ne \mathbb{E}[\ln X]. You cannot
slide a log (or an exp) through an expectation. Here
\mathbb{E}[\ln X] = \mu but
\ln \mathbb{E}[X] = \mu + \tfrac12\sigma^2: the log of the average
return is higher than the average log-return, and the gap
\tfrac12\sigma^2 is precisely the "volatility drag" that separates a
portfolio's arithmetic and geometric growth rates.
Watch the skew
Slide the log-scale parameters and watch the landmarks you just computed move. The whole curve
stays on the positive side x > 0, hugging zero on the left and
stretching into a long tail on the right. Raising \mu slides the bulk
multiplicatively to larger values (the median is e^{\mu}, so each
+0.5 of \mu scales the whole picture by
e^{0.5} \approx 1.65). Raising \sigma does
something more violent: the peak (the mode e^{\mu-\sigma^2}) slumps
left towards zero while the tail fattens to the right — the two motions that pry mean and
median apart. Push \sigma to 1 and the curve
barely looks bell-descended at all.
A good exercise: set \mu = 0, \sigma = 1 (the standard lognormal from
the worked example) and eyeball the peak near 0.37, then imagine the
median tick at 1 and the mean out at 1.65 —
in the flattest part of the curve, held up only by the tail.
Why prices are lognormal: the CLT on logs
Two facts make this the natural model for a stock price S_t. First, a
price cannot go negative — and the lognormal lives exactly on
(0, \infty). Second, returns compound
multiplicatively. Chop a year into n short periods and let
R_k be the growth factor over period k
(R_k = 1.003 for a +0.3\% day, and so on).
The year-end price is the starting price times the product:
S_T = S_0 \, R_1 R_2 \cdots R_n \qquad\Longrightarrow\qquad \ln S_T = \ln S_0 + \sum_{k=1}^{n} \ln R_k.
The logarithm turns the product into a sum of log-returns — and sums of many small,
roughly independent terms are exactly what the central limit theorem eats for
breakfast. Whatever the (reasonable) distribution of a single day's log-return, the sum
\sum \ln R_k is approximately
normal
for large n. Normal log
\Rightarrow lognormal price. The CLT explains sums, so it explains
additive quantities as normal — and multiplicative quantities as lognormal.
Heights and measurement errors (sums of small effects) go normal; prices, populations and incomes
(products of small growth factors) go lognormal.
Run the clock continuously and this heuristic becomes the exact model: in
geometric Brownian motion
— the engine of the
Black–Scholes model
— the time-T price is
S_T = S_0 \exp\!\Bigl(\bigl(\mu - \tfrac12\sigma^2\bigr)T + \sigma\sqrt{T}\,Z\Bigr), \qquad Z \sim N(0,1),
so \ln S_T \sim N\!\bigl(\ln S_0 + (\mu - \tfrac12\sigma^2)T,\; \sigma^2 T\bigr):
a lognormal at every horizon, with log-variance growing linearly in T.
And look at the drift — there is our \tfrac12\sigma^2 again, now with a
minus sign. It is placed there precisely so that the convexity lift
e^{+\sigma^2 T/2} from taking the expectation cancels it:
\mathbb{E}[S_T] = S_0\, e^{(\mu - \sigma^2/2)T}\, e^{\sigma^2 T/2} = S_0\, e^{\mu T}.
Worked example. A stock at S_0 = \$100 with drift
\mu = 8\% and volatility \sigma = 20\% per
year, at T = 1:
\ln S_1 \sim N\!\bigl(\ln 100 + 0.06,\; 0.2^2\bigr),
- median = 100\,e^{0.06} \approx \$106.18 — the "typical" year;
- mean = 100\,e^{0.08} \approx \$108.33 — the average, lifted by the lucky tail;
- mode = 100\,e^{0.06 - 0.04} = 100\,e^{0.02} \approx \$102.02 — the single most likely neighbourhood.
Half of all sample paths finish below \$106.18, yet the average finish
is \$108.33 — the mean is propped up by the minority of paths that
soar. Over long horizons the gap widens without bound: with
\sigma = 20\% over T = 25 years the
convexity factor is e^{\sigma^2 T/2} = e^{0.5} \approx 1.65, so the
average portfolio outcome is 65% above the median one. A retirement projection quoting the mean is
quietly describing a better-than-typical future.
The multiply-many-small-factors mechanism is everywhere, so lognormal-ish shapes are everywhere:
-
City sizes and firm sizes. If a city or company grows each year by a random
percentage independent of its current size — Gibrat's law of
proportionate growth (1931) — its size is a product of growth factors, hence approximately
lognormal. Empirical firm-size and mid-range city-size data fit remarkably well (the very
largest drift towards even fatter power-law tails).
-
Incomes. The bulk of income distributions is close to lognormal — raises
compound multiplicatively ("3% across the board"), so log-income accumulates additive shocks.
-
File sizes, comment lengths, hospital stays, mineral deposits, species abundances,
even incubation periods of diseases — anything built by proportional growth or
fragmentation tends to the same shape. Biologists routinely log-transform data precisely to
make lognormal measurements normal again.
And then there is the cautionary tale. The Black–Scholes model assumes lognormal prices — thin,
fast-decaying tails on the log scale. On 19 October 1987 the S&P 500 fell
about 20\% in one day, a move of roughly twenty daily
standard deviations — an event a lognormal model rates as (essentially) impossible in the age of
the universe. Markets took the hint: ever since, out-of-the-money puts have traded at
higher implied volatilities than at-the-money options — the famous
volatility smile (or smirk) — which is the market's way of saying "we no longer
believe the tails are lognormal-thin." The lognormal remains the indispensable baseline: the
smile is literally quoted as corrections to it.